marhatch
11-02-2007, 02:54 PM
I'm not sure if this is the correct place to post this but it looks like it. First off- this worked for SWIM and may or may not work for anybody else. SWIM had an opportunity to buy a large qty of cocaine at a very cheap price so she did. knowing the danger of mixing the coke and the opiates (fentanyl) she new that she had to remove the patches and keep them off for at least several hours before using the coke. after 24 hours she realized that she had not used any opiates at all and did not really feel all that bad. this could have been because it was still in her system, but she also knew that in the past when she ran out of patches early it only took about half a day before beginning withdraw symptoms. to make the story a little shorter- over the course of about 2 weeks, she quickly tapered off the patches only using the gel in very small amounts after being finished with the coke for the day- which she also used sparingly (approx 2 bumps every 2-3 hours) as of now, she hasn't used any gel or patches or coke for 2 days and only has a sore nose and feels a little sleepy/bored. also- to show that SWIM really doesnt feel bad, SWIM still has several patches and has no desire to put them on (she is in a lot of pain but wants to prove to herself this is true)
when talked to her- I told her from what I understand, a very long time ago Sigmund Freud listed cocaine as a treatment for morphine addiction, but since people who used morphine usually shot it up with needles, they would also shoot the coke up, which was just as bad "like curing the devil with Beelzebub" but if it were used in small amounts it was helpful. what I dont understand is why this works... i may have it wrong but doesn't cocaine flood the brain with dopamine and opiates attach to the opid receptors, and not flood it with dopamine? I know from my own experience with both that I would take withdraw from cocaine any time over WD from opiates. anyway- could anyone with some better understanding explain why after trying just about everything SWIM seems to have accidentally kicked opiates in 2 weeks using cocaine?
when talked to her- I told her from what I understand, a very long time ago Sigmund Freud listed cocaine as a treatment for morphine addiction, but since people who used morphine usually shot it up with needles, they would also shoot the coke up, which was just as bad "like curing the devil with Beelzebub" but if it were used in small amounts it was helpful. what I dont understand is why this works... i may have it wrong but doesn't cocaine flood the brain with dopamine and opiates attach to the opid receptors, and not flood it with dopamine? I know from my own experience with both that I would take withdraw from cocaine any time over WD from opiates. anyway- could anyone with some better understanding explain why after trying just about everything SWIM seems to have accidentally kicked opiates in 2 weeks using cocaine?